Why Calculus?
Volume of Sphere & Calculus: From a layman's point of view
S V Ramu (2000-11-20 -Version 2.0-)
Volume of Sphere
Have you ever wondered about the volume of Sphere? Without
Calculus?! Sphere has been a solid of awe, from the time
immemorial. It is the perfect solid! But, as much as the
Circle (The perfect figure), its nature is hard to
grasp.
We will try to find its Volume in a pristine way, in an
attempt to recapture the original impetus that drove
mathematicians and laymen alike, to discover the nexus between
Discrete and Continuous, Finite and
Infinite. And, eventually, Newton's genius crystallized
all these efforts into a supreme mechanism, called
Calculus.
The Concept of Limit
It was Xeno, who first expressed the enigma of infinity
and hence the limit, through his famous Achilles
Paradox. It goes something like this...
Once a tortoise challenged Achilles (a then famous Greek
runner and Olympic champion), that he cannot beat it in a running
race! All it requested for is a meter of handicap for him (i.e.
It'll start a meter ahead of him in the race). The reasoning was,
if he has the one-meter handicap, and if they start the race
at the same time, then in the time that Achilles takes to cover
that distance of one meter, the tortoise would have covered some
distance (however small it may be). And, arguing in the same way,
while Achilles cover this gap, it would have gone some more
distance! And so on... Hence Achilles can never overtake the
tortoise, as it will always be ahead due to his handicap!
This story is almost clichéd, yet the inspiration
behind it is as fresh as ever. In fact the details of this story
can be varied and yet the paradox will remain. For example, the
handicap distance can be anything other than zero; it doesn't
matter! The Tortoise could have been a snail!
Let us analyze and solve this riddle (an obvious fallacy isn't
it?). To that end let us assume some values to aid our
calculations (it is easy to prove that our assumptions are
inconsequential). Lets say, that the tortoise is half as fast as
Achilles (of course preposterous, but this will greatly simplify
our calculations). So, it is one meter ahead at the beginning,
and it moves half a meter while Achilles cover that one meter,
and then quarter of a meter and so on. The total distance covered
by the tortoise will be,
1/2 +
1/4 + 1/8 +
1/16 + 1/32 +
1/64 + ...
Now the puzzle is, if the sum of this series is infinity, it
means that Achilles can never win, because then, Achilles would
be forever catching up with the tortoise! But, of course this is not true
in reality! So, what is wrong? See closely! Does the sum of this
series equals infinity? How to prove this, without resorting to
some hi-fi math? But, how can the sum of infinite things (however
small), can be anything but infinity?!
Consider, a one-meter stick. Break it
into two. Put one piece into your pocket, and break the other
half into two. Again, do the same, keep one of the resulting
quarter piece in your pocket and break the remaining quarter into
two again. And continue doing this ad infinitum. Will this
infinite process of breaking-into-two result in a stick that is
larger than what we started (i.e. One meter)? Never! That is the
clue. In fact, the total length of the pieces in your pocket can
never be more than One! Thus we can say, that after the
infinite steps, the total size in the pocket will be
exactly equal to One! Thus,
1/2 +
1/4 + 1/8 +
1/16 + 1/32 +
1/64 + ... = 1
Hence the proof! The simple fact is that the tortoise
will be ahead of Achilles, for only a distance of One meter after
the start, after which Achilles will out run it. (In reality, the
tortoise cannot manage the lead for even few centimeters, as its
speed is many times slower than even us).
The resolution of this paradox was the first step in
comprehending the nature of infinity. From here on, the
possibility of convergent infinite series was an
established fact.
Sum to 'n' Squares
Let us push this Zero Prerequisites idea to its
extreme. The goal is to explain the Spirit of Calculus
(solving standard problems is the easiest part!) to the first man
you meet on the road. In that vein, let us digress into a
slightly different area, also interesting and relevant. (You can
safely skip this gray section, if you know and enjoy the formula
for sum to n squares)
Let us look at the sum of first n natural numbers
(1,2,3...), their squares, their cubes etc. This branch is also
very interesting and has the history of being analyzed by the
best of minds. Look at this...
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ... + n = ?
What is the sum of this series? One thing is clear; the value
of the sum should only depend on n, as the series is
completely defined by the final n. Just to tease, let me
tell the answer first and then derive it. The sum of this series
is,
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ... + n = n(n+1)/2
Many of you should have seen this. But how is this true? How
can the human mind conjure such fantastic short-form for a
lengthy series? Remember this formula holds good for any
length of the above series! Sum it up to 10, or 100, or
10,000,000 it doesn't matter! All you need is n, the final
number in the series, and you plug that number in place of
n, and lo! You have the answer. For example,
1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 98 + 99 + 100 = 100(100+1)/2 =
5050
There is an interesting anecdote with respect to this problem.
It is said, that Galois was given this problem when he was 10
years old. Apparently, the teacher of his class was worried that
the kids were too restless and bored. So, she asked them to sum
all the numbers up to 100. As they had learnt to add and subtract
only recently, she expected them to take long time to finish this
task. Not true for Galois! He noticed an interesting pattern.
Consider the following,
1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 98 + 99 + 100 = S (say!)
also,
100 + 99 + 98 + ... + 3 + 2 + 1 = S (of
course!)
Now, what is so interesting in this? Let us see...
1 + 100 = 101
1 + 100 = 101
2 + 99 = 101
3 + 98 = 101
4 + 97 = 101
...
This is the beauty! Adding 1 to 100 in either way should
result in the same sum, right? So, if summing 1 to 100 equals S,
summing 100 to 1 (in reverse) should also be S. Hence, summing
both together should be equal 2S, right? That is...
(1 + 100) + (2 + 99) + (3 + 98) + ... + (98 + 3)
+ (99 + 2) + (100 + 1) = 2S
Thus,
101 + 101 + 101 + ... (100 times this way) = 101
x 100 times = 10100 = 2S
Simplifying we get,
S = 10100 / 2 = 5050
Did you see it! How can we ever find reasons for the
astounding beauty of a genius's mind! Galois made the problem look so
simple, that his teacher was spellbound. What is more, this method
was found to be holding true for any n.
1 + 2 + 3 + ... + (n-2) + (n-1) + n = S (say)
n + (n-1) + (n-2) + ... + 3 + 2 + 1 = S (of course same)
Now adding both,
(1 + n) + (1 + n) + (1 + n) + ... (n times this
way) = n(1 + n) = 2S
Simplifying,
S = n(n + 1) / 2
Just see and praise! This derivation needs no commentary. Its
elegance speaks for itself! Now, a seeking mind will not stop at
one glory. It will push further. A true mathematician's mind
enjoys solving, not just the solution. Like an
athlete who excels himself by setting tougher and tougher
challenges, mathematicians riddle themselves with more and more
complex generalizations.
Here we go on to,
1² + 2² + 3² +
... + n² = S (say)
Again I would like to tease you with the answer, before going
to its roots. I find this an effective way to learn something.
The awe should precede all our search for knowledge. Only
that will keep us afloat at tougher times. It is like a
fast-forward rediscovery. Remember, nothing is well learnt unless
it is a self-discovery. But, as it is ridiculous to take the same
time as the history has taken, we would like to peek at the
answer and simulate the discovery process in a smaller scale. So
the result first!
1² + 2² + 3² +
... + n² = S = n(n+1)(2n+1) / 6
Complex eh! Just wait.
We want to find the sum of all squares from 1 to n. Some times
a method that was successful hitherto may not be applicable to a
problem in hand. This can be so, not only in math, but also in
other aspects of life. We must understand that this is neither
preposterous nor ugly. With what assurance can we say that our
efforts are absolute? How can we assume that the first luck we
stumbled upon as the ultimate truth?
These ramblings are not some philosophical sophistry. It is
said that Newton wrote down some Philosophizing Truths in
his major book on Physics (Principia Mathematica). Human
mind and achievements are always guided by their perception of
life. The more positively you take a discord, a puzzle, a misfit,
more persevering you will be, and more fruitful will in your
search be.
In this vein, we shall stoop to conquer! When we are on
a small peak, and if we want to reach a taller peak from where we
are, we have to climb down to go up (Hill Climbing Principle). So
let us explore some first principles, to calculate the sum of
squares.
But first, the sum of natural numbers again, to arrive at some
broader technique! (Sorry! We have to see the same thing in
different angle to get a firmer grasp of it). But, don't worry;
I'll try to make it as intuitive as possible. Be warned, it is
going to be wordy! (Or, should I keep it plain?)
We know, (n + 1)² = (n + 1)(n + 1) = n² + 2n +1
Now let us do a mental leap. You must remember that the
awesome tricks that mathematicians do are not the product of one
day. Some of the seemingly simple methods that we see today have
decades or even centuries of history. It is said that the
zero that we use so naturally nowadays has taken a
civilization to evolve! It is in India that it first
originated. The entire European mind did not even stumble upon it
until they found it through the Arabs.
So, if you ever wonder how some ingenious way was found by a
great mind, remember it did take its toll of time and history.
Just try your best to relish and enjoy it, and you are on your
way to some personal landmark! All this said, follow on...
1² = 0² + 2.0 +1
2² = 1² + 2.1 +1
3² = 2² + 2.2 +1
...
n² = (n-1)² + 2.(n-1) +1
(n+1)² = n² + 2.n +1
Summing both sides of all the above equations,
1² + 2² + 3² +
... + (n+1)² = [0² + 1² +
2² + 3² + ... + n²] + 2.[0 + 1 +
2 + 3 + ... + n] + (n + 1).1
If you notice, all the squares on both sides cancel each other
except (n+1)². So,
(n+1)² = 2.[0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n] + (n +
1).1
(n+1)² = 2.S + (n + 1).1
where 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n = S (the same thing we are finding
again!) Thus,
2.S = (n + 1)² - (n + 1)
S = (n + 1) [(n + 1) 1] / 2 ---------------------- pulling
out the common (n + 1)
S = (n + 1) [n] / 2 ---------------------- Aha! The same
again!
After some thought, obvious isn't it? But see its elegance
too! The key feature of this method, against the Galois's
masterstroke is its generality. You can extend this method for
squares, cubes and more. Like,
We know, (n + 1)³ = (n + 1)(n + 1)(n +
1) = (n² + 2n + 1)(n + 1) = n³ +
3n² + 3n + 1
Now go on as before. Sorry, against my will, I'm not going to
go through this fully again. But if you are not convinced
that,
1² + 2² + 3² +
... + n² = n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6
Then, please work your way through this fully. In fact, when I
did that in my early days, I found this very complex (though
solvable) for squares and cubes (not to mention higher powers).
But, as providence usually gives complexity for growth, I did
find an elegant method for 4th and 5th
powers. All the best!
Now that we are armed with all these results, we shall boldly
proceed to solve the Volume of the Sphere problem. Rest
assured, I'll not do the do-it-yourself tricks anymore.
I'll do a meticulous blow up of each step. I did it for the
Sum of Squares problem, only to save my breath for nicer
(not so obvious) things to come.
Limits Revisited
You all should have heard the story of Six Blind Men and
the Elephant. The story has an interesting connotation for
Human Comprehension. An abstract concept is like the
elephant in this story, it is invisible to us; i.e. We are
blind in that respect. If we cannot see a concept,
how else will we know about it? Even we cannot see a
concept fully, we can usually Sense some part of it at
times. So our task is to Sense it in as many angle as
possible and piece it together to form a tentative full
picture.
What does all these mean to our understanding of
Limits? The Limit is an abstract concept. It is
also a technique. As we saw in the case of summation of series in
the last section, a technique should be explored fully to make it
general. We are going to do just that.
We saw that,
1/2 +
1/4 + 1/8 +
1/16 + 1/32 +
1/64 + ... (when continued forever!) =
1
This is Limits! Here, the limit is to infinity. What
'am I saying? Let me try in a different way again. We can
write,
1/2 +
1/4 + 1/8 +
1/16 + 1/32 +
1/64 + ... (when continued forever! To
infinity)
As, Limit n tends to infinity, of
1/2
n = 1
Clear? Ok, now the problem is, how do we say what the sum of
an infinite series would be when its terms steadily decreases?
Here the term 1/2
n steadily
decreases, as the n increases. So, let us specialize on
the Limit n tends to infinity case fully.
First off, remember, we haven't said that all infinite series
is convergent (sum up to a number). For example, it is can
be proved (How? Do pursue sometime...!) that,
1/1 +
1/2 + 1/3 +
1/4 + 1/5 +
1/6 + ... (when continued forever) =
infinity!
So, we have to be cautious. How? Let us clear some basic
stuff. Which is bigger? 1/10 or
1/100? Of course, the one with the larger
denominator is the smallest (if the numerator is same). So the
decreasing order is 1/10 ,
1/100, 1/1000 ....
Now, what happens if the denominator keeps increasing? The
fraction keeps decreasing. But what will it be ultimately? Zero
of course! (Please pursue further if not convinced). Thus we
have,
Limit n tends to infinity, of
1/n = 0
Aha! That is something! Now we turn the question on its head.
What happens if the denominator becomes smaller and smaller?
1/100 = .01
1/10 = .1
1/1 = 1
1/.1 = 10
1/.01 = 100
1/.001 = 1000
...
So, the value of the fraction increases, as the denominator
decrease. How big can the fraction be? As big as we want! Yes, as
the denominator goes to zero the value of the fraction becomes
larger and larger, i.e. It becomes infinity. Thus,
Limit n tends to zero, of
1/n = infinity
Great! We are getting somewhere. To simplify things,
1/infinity = zero
And,
1/zero = infinity
Wow! Let us see what we can do with these results. For
example, let us consider some ugly expression like (n + 1)(2n +
3) / 5n² as n tends to infinity.
Limit n tends to infinity, of (n + 1)(2n + 3) /
5n²
= (2n² + 5n + 3) / 5n²
= 2n²/5n² + 5n/5n² +
³/5n²
= ²/5 + 5/5n +
³/5n²
Now, making the n as infinity, the denominator of the
2nd and 3rd term becomes infinity (Believe
me! 5 × infinity = infinity. Too much to believe? Then test it!),
hence those terms become zero! What is left is
²/5.
Thus, Limit n tends to infinity, of (n + 1)(2n +
3) / 5n² = ²/5
Do you see the power! We shall need these analysis and
techniques in finding the Volume of Sphere.
Volume of Sphere Revisited
Now you are going to witness
a powerful technique, which trace back to a time, long before
that of Newton's. The idea is to split a continuous thing into
infinite number of discrete things. This is a very natural idea.
Imagine, you want to find the area of an irregular figure. How
will you do it? One nice idea is to divide the irregular figure
into a grid of small squares and then add them up. The smaller
the squares, higher your accuracy will be. If the area of squares
tends to zero, then the number of squares tend to
infinity, and hence the area is exact!
Here, divide one half of the sphere into n circular
disks of equal thickness. So the thickness of each disk will be
R/n, where R is the radius of the sphere. Also the radius of the
k-th disk can be found by the famous Pythagoras Theorem
(Square of the hypotenuse equals the sum of the squares of the
other two sides. How?!). Here,
R² = r² + (k .
R/n)²
Thus, r² = R² (k .
R/n)²
Now, what is the Volume of the Whole Sphere?
= 2 times the volume of each hemisphere
= 2 × Sum of the Volume of all the disks (i.e.
cylinders) in an hemisphere
You should understand that each disk is a cylinder, and,
Volume of a cylinder = Area of its base
x its height = πr² . (R/n)
Thus the Volume of the Sphere is,
= 2.{π [R²
(1.R/n)²].(R/n) + π [R²
(2.R/n)²].(R/n) + .... }
Pulling out the π and (R/n),
= 2 π (R/n).{ [R²
(1.R/n)²] + [R² (2.R/n)²]
+ .... + [R² (n.R/n)²] }
Expanding and Pulling out the common R²,
= 2 π (R³/n).{ [1
(1/n)²] + [1 (2/n)²] + .... + [1
(n/n)²] }
Summing the common terms,
= 2 π (R³/n).{ n.1
[(1/n)² + (2/n)² + .... +
(n/n)²] }
Pulling out the common 1/n² we get,
= 2 π (R³/n).{ n
(1/n)² [1² + 2² + .... +
n²] }
Now, using the
Sum to n
Squares
(that we derived earlier) formula here,
= 2 π (R³/n).{ n
(1/n)² [ n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6] }
Pulling out the common factors and Simplifying,
= 2 π (R³/n).n{ 1
(1/n)² [(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6] }
= 2 πR³.{ 1 (1/n)² [(n + 1)(2n +
1)/6] }
= 2 πR³.{ 1 [(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6n²]
}
= 2 πR³.{ 1 [(2n² + 3n +
1)/6n²] }
= 2 πR³.{ 1 [2n²/6n²+
3n/6n² + 1/6n²] }
= 2 πR³.{ 1 [1/3+ 1/2n + 1/6n²]
}
Well! This is the Volume of the Sphere approximately!
The only reason for the approximation is the presence of
n still there. After all, the Volume of the Sphere depends
only on its radius R, hence there is no reason for any other
variable to be present. When we started, we said that the
infinite number of very small things becomes continuous itself.
Thus when the number of discs become infinite, and their
thickness become zero, and then the sum of the volume of all
these discs will eventually become the Volume of the Sphere (V)
itself!
Thus when the limit of n tend to infinity, in the above final
equation, the 2nd and the 3rd term
vanishes, thus,
V = 2πR³.{1 1/3} =
(4/3)πR³
∴ Volume of the Sphere =
4/3πR³
At last, we have found the Volume of Sphere! Note it, we
haven't used any Calculus! Now, the only thing that remains, is
to show the Newton's effort in simplifying this whole process
through Calculus.
The Newton's Genius
Enter Newton! And
this whole process was simplified through Integral Calculus. The
beauty of the above algebraic method of finding the Volume of
Sphere is, it doesn't use any unsaid concept. In fact you can, if
you want, altogether abolish calculus, and use this technique of
summing an infinite series over a limit for all your
needs. But that would be rather painfully tedious, since there
are some simple patterns in the concept of limit itself, that we
can use, to simplify. Remember, the jargons and techniques of
calculus are just, short forms for summing an infinite series
over suitable limit. No more, and no less.
Now, let us finish off the holy grail of any higher secondary
student, that of finding the relation between the ordinary
algebra, and calculus. To me, this facet took lot of time to be
intelligible. In retrospect, the trouble is in coming to terms
with the obvious. The answer was really right before my eyes, yet
I didn't believe, as it looked too simple to be true. Yes,
calculus is really a short form for summing convergent
infinite series, which happens to be translating itself as
area under the curve, geometrically.
Very simply put, integral f(x)dx, between x=a and x=b (b>a)
can be defined as, the area under the curve f(x), between
a and b. Remember, a Definition is only an alias. No new
truth is in there, just a sweet name in place rambling details.
Note too, that a proper definition, clarifies immensely. Many a
time, a good definition almost has the same clout as that of an
Axiom, which is in fact a distillate of knowledge, that
can make or break a science. These building blocks take lot of
time to evolve, but once done, the problem picture becomes lot
clearer.
a∫b f(x)dx = Area under
the curve f(x), between x=a and x=b
If you notice, the same trick that we applied to the above
case of sphere holds good for all continuous functions. For the
area under the curve case, assume that the x-axis is split into n
equal sections, between x=a and a=b. So, each section (say h) is
equal to (b-a)/n.
h = (b-a)/n
Now visualize rectangles with breadth as h, and length as
f(h), f(2h), ... and f(nh). In the spirit of limits, can we not
then say that, the sum of the areas of all these rectangles, as
the area under the curve between x=a and x=b ?! Of course, if the
number of sections (n), thus the rectangles, is infinitely large.
So,
a∫b f(x)dx =
lim
n → ∞
k=1∑n h.f(k.h), where
h=(b-a)/n
a∫b f(x)dx = lim
n
→ ∞ h. k=1∑n
f(k.h), where h=(b-a)/n, since h is
a constant with respect to r
Well, this is powerful! Do you realize that? If you don't I
will not blame you. (Beware, there is a mistake here, that we'll
clarify in the next section. It is ok for now!) For example, I
was almost blind, or definitely hazy, about its value for many
many years. What the above equation defines, is a technique to
interpret the limit of an infinite convergent series, as
the area under a suitable curve, and is represented in a neat
form. Yes, nothing else at all. Well, there is nothing new in
this, we have already seen that, for finding its volume, we can
split a continuous and smooth sphere into infinite number of
discrete sections and then summing them all. The above cryptic
and intimidating expression, just formally concretize our volume
trick. The point is, that the volume trick is such a powerful
tool, that we are going to use it for any Continuous →
Discrete → Continuous round-trip magic. The proof of the
pudding is in eating, so let us use this beautiful equation,
to simplify the volume-of-sphere derivation.
Here
h=(R-0)/n=R/n, and
lim n → ∞
And, 0∫R f(x)dx = h.
k=1∑n f(k.h),
The question is, what should be the f(x) in sphere's case? If
we find that, we can, not only relate integral to volume of
sphere, but also cast our derivation in the language of calculus.
Remember, until now, we are only using calculus as notation
shorthand, and nothing more, hence the derivation will not be any
simpler. Once we frame this connection beyond doubt, we'll see
some properties of integral, which allows many problems like that
of deriving volume etc. to be dramatically simple. For now, what
is f(x) here?
So we know, 0∫R f(x)dx
= h. k=1∑n f(k.h),
Here, since h acts as the height of the cylinder, f(k.h) is
nothing but the area of the circle of kth
cylinder.
Now, Area of the Circle = π.radius²
where, radius² = [R² - (k.h)²] = [R² -
x²], as f(x)=f(k.h)
So, area of the kth cylinder's circle, f(x) =
π.[R² - x²]
of course, height of the cylinder = h =
R/n
When lim n → ∞, Volume of Sphere = 2 × Volume of
the Hemisphere
= 2. 0∫R f(x)dx =
2.R/n. k=1∑n
π.[R² - (k.R/n)²]
Isn't this wonderful! The integral form of the volume of
sphere is,
Volume of Sphere = 2
0∫R π.[R² - x²]dx
Well! I suppose the simplicity speaks volumes for itself. See
the amazing brevity of saying the same thing, that we previously
said in so many words, in so little. Of course, expressing
something in a cute integral form doesn't solve it. All the same,
we do know that if we can readily know the integral of all
functions, and can cast a given problem into an integral of an
appropriate function, then the solution is not only immediate,
but also most elegant. By the way, in case you want to see the
steps from here on,
Volume of Sphere = 2
0∫R π.[R² - x²]dx
Hoping that you know that, ∫ xndx =
n.x(n+1)/(n+1)
∴ Volume of the Sphere
= 2π 0∫R R²dx - 2π
0∫R x²dx
= 2πR² [R-0] - 2π [R³/3 - 0]
= 2πR³ (1-1/3)
∴ Volume of the Sphere =
4/3πR³
Integration Nirvana
The last section's goal was to relate the modern Integration
techniques with the bygone summing convergent series
technique, through finding the volume of a sphere. But,
Integration demands its own attention too. We'll now try to
bridge this gap between the old-intuitive discrete methodology to
the new-elegant integral technique, by exposing their relation in
various angles.
The key concept
that irritates a calculus student is the concept of Indefinite
Integral. If Definite Integral (i.e. between limits a and b)
means the area under the curve between the x=a and x=b, then what
does Indefinite Integral (with no lower or upper limits
specified) mean? This is an important question. As you will see
the answer is obvious (in hindsight). The deeper doubt in this
question is, if we are to assume only the definition that
Integration is just a handy abbreviation for the summation of
some suitable convergent series, and not use any of the
modern results of integrals (which use differentiation and other
tools, hitherto un-discussed here), then how are we to define a
limit less Integration in terms of summation?!
In the last section, we said,
a∫b f(x)dx =
lim
n → ∞
k=1∑n h.f(k.h), where
h=(b-a)/n
Sorry, this is not true! In fact I realized this mistake only
latter. But I decided to keep the draft unaltered, to give you a
sense of the common pitfalls involved when dealing with limits.
(Yes, a classic case of bug turned into a feature). The correct
form would be,
a∫b f(x)dx =
lim
n → ∞
k=1∑n h.f(a + k.h),
where h=(b-a)/n
A very subtle error indeed, but created a havoc in my early
crosschecks. The beauty was, the final answer derived in the
above section regarding the volume of sphere, is true, in spite
of this mistake! Because, the problem in hand required x=a=0,
hence we escaped. I realize that these types of mistakes are very
common when you cast a given real life problem in integral terms.
Indeed this problem definition phase is a very smart mental leap,
hence need lot more reflections, from as many angles. Part of
learning a concept, is also to learn its common pitfalls, in that
sense I can be pardoned of this sin of knowingly allowing
mistakes, if this almost-real-time simulation of a common mistake
had been as reveling to you as it was to me.
Now, coming back from this little digression let me give out
the answer before going into the motivation behind that, as is
usual.
∫ f(x)dx = 0∫x
f(x)dx
Yes, that is all there to it. Indefinite Integral is nothing but
an Integral with limits going from x=0 to x=x (some arbitrary
number). The point that could put you off is the upper limit x=x.
Does it have any significance with the x of f(x)? Absolutely not!
The x in f(x) is just to signify a variable (of course, x of f(x)
is fully related to x of dx). Similarly, x of x=x (upper limit)
is also a variable to signify an arbitrary value. It could have
easily been x=y of x=z or x=1729 or x=B or anything. We
choose x=x only to keep the number of variables to minimum, and
to give a feeling that integral of f(x) is nothing but a
transformed function of x still. This is a key trick, and a
revelation that two independent entities, when made accidentally
similar, look curious.
Ok, what is the point in making such a definition for definite
integral?
If, ∫ f(x)dx = 0∫x
f(x)dx = F(x), say
Then, a∫b f(x)dx = F(b)-F(a)
What we are trying to say is, that the given problem of
integration is same (for practical purposes) regardless of its
limits. So, it would be nice to find the integral as a general
function (of one variable, say x), and then plug in the limits to
get the final results. This way, we need not calculate the
integral for each change in the limits. A powerful idea. But how
is this idea feasible? How can we say, that F(b)-F(a) gives the
value of an integral between the limits x=a and x=b?
To understand that, see the figure in this section. You can
notice that,
(The area between x=a and x=b under f(x)) = (The
area between x=0 and x=b) - (The area between x=0 and x=a)
Of course assuming that a<b, we can reduce the problem of
definite integral to one of subtracting areas. A powerful result,
always reminding us of the geometric origin of the definition. In
calculus, as in other fields, it is very important that we
constantly be aware of the definitions and other assumptions, and
not be carried away by the complex looking expressions, steps and
symbols.
This reminds me of an anecdote of Feynman (a noble laureate in
physics). It seems that he was giving a lecture to a
distinguished audience which had Einstein, Bohr and such like.
Feynman was uncomfortable with the physical interpretation of a
step in his derivation. He was already legendary for his superior
usage of mathematics for physics. Moreover his lecture was
planned for a couple of hours. So, he thought, that this
miniscule step could be overlooked for now. Thus, the lecture
went on and finished well. The question time started. It seems
that the very first question from Einstein was about the
doubtfulness of the very same miniscule step! Feynman was
astonished. He asked Einstein (already a revered octogenarian)
how he could single that very problem out of a couple of hours of
intense deep-math lecture? The reply was, that mathematics is
only an expression of the physicist, whose primary objective is to
model the given physical problem. (I'm truly not worried about the
authenticity of this anecdote, but am willing to subscribe to the
fact that, as long as we are fully aware of the motivation and
significance of a symbol, a definition, an axiom, or a concept,
nothing else matters. A derivation or proof is only an expression
of our inner conviction that something is true. Long before a
proof or a theory is spelt out, the mind has already seen it.
Mind doesn't use symbols and expressions alone to come to a
conclusion. Understanding is much more than knowledge.)
Another question that haunt us is, what is the significance of
dx? The answer is: just to hint us what is the variable with
respect to which we are integrating. Yes, in the modern method of
finding the value of an Integral, dx does not play any active
role other than tagging the variable of integration. But for
formulating a real-life problem, from convergent series notation
to integral, this dx is the buoy, which hints us about the
whereabouts of the breadth of the rectangles of summation
(lengths being the function f(x)).
Integration is Anti-Differentiation
Up till this alone is
enough to satisfy a high schooler about the real-time relevance
of calculus. Since they already would have gone through the mill
of finding integrals, without knowing how it relates to the
problem at hand. Still, one more thing can be of good use. If you
remember, we used summation of series, and limits, to calculate
the volume, and hence the integral. But, if we have to do that
always, that looks bit unwieldy. It is! I heard that it was
indeed done this way sometime back in history, but latter an
amazing inverse relationship was found with
Differentiation (another facet of calculus, ie. limits).
Differentiation happens to be a rather simple in computation, and
hence asserting that Integration is inverse of
Differentiation, reduced lot of efforts. Almost always you
can just manipulate a differentiation in reverse and find the
corresponding Integral value. If you need to know how a given
integral is derived, you can consult any calculus book, and get a
good picture. We will only clarify the Integration's relation
with Differentiation.
Here, Δx.(y) ≤ ΔA ≤
Δx.(y-Δy)
∴ y ≤ ΔA/Δx ≤
y-Δy
∴ y ≤ limΔx→0
ΔA/Δx ≤ y
∴ ΔA/Δx = y
But we know, A = ∫y Δx
Hence, Integration is reverse of Differentiation! Ok, ok, I'm
not as elaborate as I have been, and I'm not going to be in this
case. The concept of Differentiation is another eye to calculus.
A poem in it its own right and should be enjoyed separately. It
can take an essay by itself. However, it is lot more obvious to a
discerning mind, than Integration. But the point to whet your
appetite is, that since Integration is Anti-Differentiation,
which is simpler, you could discover the value of integral by
retracing the path of the differentiation. Maybe, now you have to
solve some problems, to make all these concepts concrete.
Epilogue
The aim of this article is not to train you in solving
problems on limits, integration or differentiation, but only to
put all these in perspective, and relate each other. Once the
concepts are clear and placed, the techniques, formulas are just
modalities. Of course they too require attention and
appreciation, so please dip into them with all care.
Learning a field is a science and art by itself. You can see
the techniques involved in it, once you learn sufficiently many
different fields. Thereby you learn the invariants of learning,
and hence apply it for learning a completely new thing. One
constantly recurring theme is to find a basic question, the
answer to which forms the proof for the existence of the field
itself. Getting this question is not too tough. All you need to
do is to suspect the very requirement of this new field for human
knowledge. Try your level best to circumvent using any of the new
field's tricks and go from the first principles. You'll soon
arrive at a point, where you find the real need for this new
field. Of course, if you are persevering, creative and lucky
enough, you might be trail blazing a new science. Even otherwise,
you loose nothing, you would have learned the subject so well in
this process, that you could have never done so, had a book been
given to you, and asked to write an exam in it.
Maybe, if the present day schooling concentrated more on
learning, enjoying and researching, than on getting to know lot
of facts, we might be progressing much faster. I have myself
witnessed, that this knack of asking too many unconventional
questions, and re-inventing sciences, not only solves a given
problem, but becomes a habit and helps me solve newer problems
(in hitherto unconnected domains). This is sort of a simulated,
fast forward reinvention. If calculus had taken 200 years to
evolve and 200 more years to mature. We might take just around 2
weeks or 2 months to re construct the whole drama, if we are
willing. Of course, never hesitate to read a book on it, but also
be aware not to use anything which you have not understood.
In this sense, Reinventing the wheel has its own
usefulness for human understanding. Maybe we can only say, that
do your re-inventions consciously, not as a lifetime pursuit, if
you do find some new paths, do refer constantly (maybe
occasionally?) to the available literature, to help you not waste
too much by going too far through a well trodden path. Well, as
somebody said, that a philosophy put in a nutshell stays there.
The art of learning, to put it simply, is an art. How much ever
you study, how much ever it can be simplified, you can never
substitute a personal passion or passionate practice. Get your
hands dirty, perfection is not too far (or, is it far, and it
doesn't matter?)!
References
-
Analytical Geometry & Calculus
This is a book by Thomas and Finney. A masterpiece. It does cover the topics that are
explained here, and lot more. The only benefit of this article would be its personal
nature, tone and the simple sequence.
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